VISUAL IMPAIRMENT MCQ'S

 

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VISUAL IMPAIRMENT MCQ'S

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Do you know how to deal with visual impairment? How much do you actually know about visual impairment? Attempt the quiz below and evaluate your knowledge. There are different types of visual impairments people have; for example, some cannot see objects close to them, while others can see those at a distance. How well do you know about taking care of the visually impaired and some of the issues they may face? Take the quiz and find out!

Questions and Answers

1. 

The World Health Organization has recommended a classification system for degrees of low vision. They include which of the following?

A.

Severe

B.

Profound

C.

Moderate

D.

Mild

Correct Answer(s)

A. Severe

B. Profound

C. Moderate

Explanation

The World Health Organization has recommended a classification system for degrees of low vision, which includes severe, profound, moderate, and mild. This classification system helps in categorizing the level of visual impairment based on the severity of the condition.

 

There is a universally accepted definition of visual impairment. 

A.

True

B.

False

Correct Answer

B. False

ExplanationThe statement suggests that there is no universally accepted definition of visual impairment. This means that different organizations or countries may have different criteria or definitions for what constitutes visual impairment. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

 

3. 

Visual impairment can be caused by the following: 

A.

Intrauterine infection

B.

Disease or injury

C.

Malformation of the visual system

D.

Inherent disorders

Correct Answer(s)

A. Intrauterine infection

B. Disease or injury

C. Malformation of the visual system

D. Inherent disorders

Explanation

Visual impairment can be caused by various factors such as intrauterine infection, disease or injury, malformation of the visual system, and inherent disorders. Intrauterine infection refers to infections that occur during pregnancy and can affect the development of the visual system in the fetus. Disease or injury can result in visual impairment due to damage to the eyes or optic nerves. Malformation of the visual system can occur during fetal development, leading to structural abnormalities that affect vision. Inherent disorders are genetic conditions that can impact the functioning of the visual system, leading to visual impairment.

Which type of assessment would be the best when working with a visually impaired child?

A.

Criterion refrenced

B.

Non-standardized

C.

Standardized

D.

Norm refrenced

Correct Answer

A. Criterion refrenced

Explanation

When working with a visually impaired child, a criterion-referenced assessment would be the best choice. This type of assessment focuses on the child's individual progress and evaluates their performance against specific criteria or standards. It allows for a personalized approach that takes into account the unique needs and abilities of the visually impaired child. In contrast, standardized and norm-referenced assessments may not accurately measure the child's abilities, as they are based on a comparison to a larger group of children and may not consider the specific challenges faced by visually impaired individuals.

Which of the following assessment(s) would be most useful when working with a visually impaird child?

A.

Oregon Project Skills Inventory

B.

Hawaii Early Learning Profile

C.

Callier-Azusa Scale

D.

Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development

Correct Answer(s)

A. Oregon Project Skills Inventory

B. Hawaii Early Learning Profile

C. Callier-Azusa Scale

Explanation

The Callier-Azusa Scale, Oregon Project Skills Inventory, and Hawaii Early Learning Profile would be most useful when working with a visually impaired child. These assessments are specifically designed to evaluate the developmental skills and abilities of children with visual impairments. They take into account the unique challenges and needs of visually impaired children and provide valuable information for planning appropriate interventions and support.

How can you tell as a teacher if a student is visually impaired?

A.

Watering of eyes

B.

Recurrent redness

C.

Frequent blinking

D.

A student showing any of the above symptoms

Correct Answer

D. A student showing any of the above symptoms

Explanation

The correct answer is "A student showing any of the above symptoms". This answer is correct because all of the listed symptoms - watering of eyes, recurrent redness, and frequent blinking - can be indicative of visual impairment. If a student is experiencing any of these symptoms, it may be a sign that they are having difficulty seeing and should be further assessed by a medical professional.

 

Which one of the following is not an effective pedagogical strategy for the inclusion of students who have a severe visual impairment?

A.

Use of computers to give visual representation

B.

Felt books and felt boards

C.

Three dimensional maps and charts

D.

Speaking clearly and explicitly

Correct AnswerA. 

Use of computers to give visual representationExplanationThe use of computers to give visual representation is not an effective pedagogical strategy for the inclusion of students who have a severe visual impairment. Since these students have difficulty or cannot see visual content, relying on computers for visual representation would not be helpful for their learning. Instead, strategies such as felt books and boards, three-dimensional maps and charts, and speaking clearly and explicitly would be more effective in accommodating their needs and promoting their learning.

What percent of people living with sight loss are completely blind?

A.

About 1%

B.

About 2-3%

C.

About 4-6%

D.

More than 6%

Correct Answer

C. About 4-6%

Explanation

Approximately 4-6% of people living with sight loss are completely blind. This percentage indicates that a small portion of individuals with sight loss have no visual perception at all. The answer suggests that the majority of people with sight loss still retain some degree of vision, albeit impaired. It is important to note that this answer provides an estimate and the actual percentage may vary.

If a student uses tactile or auditory resources as his/her primary channel of learning.

A.

He or she is completely blind.

B.

He or she is partially blind.

C.

He or she is functionally blind.

D.

He or she has low-vision.

Correct Answer

C. He or she is functionally blind.

Explanation

If a student uses tactile or auditory resources as his/her primary channel of learning, it suggests that they have functional blindness. This means that while they may have some vision, it is not sufficient for them to rely on visual resources for learning. Instead, they rely on other senses such as touch or hearing to access information and learn effectively.

If someone has a white cane, are they completely blind or partially sighted?

A.

Completely blind

B.

Partially sighted

C.

Both can happen.

D.

None of the above

Correct Answer

C. Both can happen.

Explanation

Having a white cane does not necessarily indicate whether someone is completely blind or partially sighted. It is a mobility aid commonly used by individuals with visual impairments, including those who are completely blind or partially sighted. Therefore, both situations can occur where someone with a white cane can be completely blind or partially sighted.

Ophthalmology

Questions and Answers

1. 

This nerve to an extraocular muscle does not pass through the muscle cone on entering the orbit.

A.

CN III

B.

CN IV

C.

CN V

D.

CN VI

E.

CN VIII

Correct Answer. CN IV

Explanation

CN IV, also known as the trochlear nerve, is the correct answer because it is the only nerve among the options that does not pass through the muscle cone on entering the orbit. The muscle cone, also called the annulus of Zinn, is a fibrous structure that surrounds the optic nerve and contains the other extraocular muscles and nerves. CN IV, however, exits the brainstem dorsally and passes through a small hole in the skull called the superior orbital fissure, bypassing the muscle cone.

Which is true regarding orbital anatomy?

A.

The lacrimal gland fossa is located within the lateral orbital wall.

B.

The optic canal is located within the greater wing of the sphenoid bone

C.

The medial wall of the optic canal is formed by the lateral wall of the spenoid sinus.

D.

The nerve to the inferior rectus muscle travels anteriorly along the medial aspect of the muscle and innervates the muscle on its posterior surface

Correct Answer

C. The medial wall of the optic canal is formed by the lateral wall of the spenoid sinus.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the medial wall of the optic canal is formed by the lateral wall of the sphenoid sinus. This means that the space within the optic canal is bordered by the lateral wall of the sphenoid sinus, which is located in the skull. The optic canal is a passageway that allows the optic nerve to travel from the eye to the brain. Understanding the anatomy of the optic canal is important for understanding the pathway of the optic nerve and any potential issues that may arise in this area.

The five major branches of the facial nerve include the temporal, buccal, marginal mandibular, cervical and

A.

Temporal parietal

B.

Zygomatic

C.

Infraorbital

D.

Zygomaticofacial

Correct Answer 

B.Zygomatic

Explanation

The correct answer is "Zygomatic" because it is one of the five major branches of the facial nerve. The facial nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of the face and is divided into several branches that innervate different regions. The zygomatic branch specifically innervates the muscles around the cheekbone area, including the zygomaticus major and minor muscles.

What structure is deep to the plane of the facial nerve branches in the lower face?

A.

Masseter muscle

B.

Parotidomasseteric fascia

C.

Deep temporal fascia

D.

Parotid gland

Correct Answer

A. Masseter muscle

Explanation

The masseter muscle is deep to the plane of the facial nerve branches in the lower face. This means that the facial nerve branches are located beneath the masseter muscle when considering the anatomical layers of the lower face.

The superior transverse ligament is also referred to as.

A.

Lockwood's ligament

B.

Sommerring's ligament

C.

The ROOF

D.

Whitnall's ligament

Correct Answer

D. Whitnall's ligament

Explanation

The superior transverse ligament is commonly known as Whitnall's ligament. This ligament is located in the eye socket and helps to support the upper eyelid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper position and function of the eyelid, ensuring that it opens and closes smoothly. Whitnall's ligament is named after the British ophthalmologist Charles Whitnall, who first described its anatomy and function.

What typically results from acquired ocular misalignment?

A.

Strabismus

B.

Diplopia

C.

Pinguecula

D.

Ptyerigium

Correct Answer

B. Diplopia

Explanation

Acquired ocular misalignment refers to a condition where the eyes are not properly aligned, causing double vision or diplopia. This means that a person sees two images of a single object instead of one. Strabismus is a medical term for misalignment of the eyes, but it is not the result of acquired ocular misalignment. Pinguecula and pterygium are both conditions that involve the growth of abnormal tissue on the eye, but they are not related to ocular misalignment. Therefore, the correct answer is diplopia, which is a common symptom of acquired ocular misalignment.

What is jiggling of the eyes called?

A.

Nystagmus

B.

Strabismus

C.

Ectropion

D.

Entropion

Correct Answer

A. Nystagmus

Explanation

Nystagmus refers to the involuntary jiggling or shaking of the eyes. It is a condition characterized by rapid, repetitive, and uncontrolled eye movements that can occur horizontally, vertically, or in a rotary pattern. Nystagmus can be congenital or acquired and may be caused by various underlying factors, such as neurological disorders, inner ear problems, or certain medications. The condition can affect vision and may result in reduced visual acuity, dizziness, and difficulty with depth perception. Treatment options for nystagmus depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, surgery, or the use of visual aids.

A 30 y/o chronic tanner presents to your office for an eye exam because she has something in her eye that she can't get out.  Upon examination, you see a triangular encroachment of the pinguecula onto the cornea bilaterally.  What is most likely the Dx? 

A.

Ptyerigium

B.

Pinguecula

C.

Chalazion

D.

Hordelum

Correct Answer

A. Ptyerigium

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis in this case is pterygium. Pterygium is a growth of fleshy tissue on the conjunctiva, usually caused by excessive exposure to UV radiation. It commonly occurs in individuals who frequently tan or spend a lot of time in the sun. The triangular encroachment of the pinguecula onto the cornea is a characteristic finding of pterygium. Pinguecula, on the other hand, is a yellowish bump on the conjunctiva that does not invade the cornea. Chalazion and hordeolum are both eyelid conditions and not related to the symptoms described.

A patient presents to your office with a painless, slowly enlarging bump on the eyelid.  What is the treatment?

A.

Topical antibiotics

B.

Oral antibiotics

C.

Sent to an ophthalmologist asap

D.

Warm compresses

Correct Answer

D. Warm compresses

Explanationchalazion- a painless, slowly enlarging bump on the eyelid that is formed by inflammation of the meibomian glands.

A 35 y/o male presents to your office because he thinks he got "pink eye" from his daughter.  He awoke with a red, painful, swollen eye.  Upon examination you see infection in the deeper structures behind the eye. What is most likely the Dx? 

A.

Viral Conjunctivitis

B.

Orbital Cellulitis

C.

Scleritis

D.

Dacryoadenitis

Correct Answer

B. Orbital Cellulitis

Explanation

The eye may be pushed forward and vision may be affected. Treatment must be taken seriously and requires urgent hospitalization and antibiotic treatment.

A patient recently diagnosed with a herpes virus presented to the ophthalmologist with diplopia and painful swelling of the lateral third of the upper eye lid.  What is most likely the Dx?

A.

Conjunctivitis

B.

Herpes in the eye

C.

Dacryoadenitis

D.

Hyphema

Correct Answer

C. Dacryoadenitis

Explanation

Dacryoadenitis- Uncommon, inflammatory disorder of the lacrimal gland, located under the lateral portion of the upper lid. Most common causes are mumps and herpes virus 🦠.

Band shaped keratopathy is caused by:

A.

Amyloid

B.

Calcium

C.

Monopolysaccharide

D.

Lipid

Correct Answer

B. Calcium

Explanation

Band shaped keratopathy occurs due to the accumulation of calcium salts in a band pattern in the anterior corneal layers.

 

Bitemporal hemianopia field defect is characteristic of?

A.

Glaucoma

B.

Optic neuritis

C.

Pituitary tumour

D.

Retinal detachment

Correct Answer

C. Pituitary tumour

Explanation

Pituitary tumors compress the optic chiasma and cause bitemporal hemianopia. ⁉️ 

  

Afferent pathway for pupillary light reflex is:

A.

Trigeminal nerve

B.

Optic nerve

C.

Abducent nerve

D.

Ciliary nerve

Correct Answer

B. Optic nerve

Explanation

The afferent pathway for the pupillary light reflex refers to the pathway through which sensory information from the eye is transmitted to the brain. In the case of the pupillary light reflex, the optic nerve is responsible for carrying this information. The optic nerve is specifically designed to transmit visual information from the retina to the brain, making it the correct answer for this question. The other options listed, such as the trigeminal nerve, abducent nerve, and ciliary nerve, are not involved in the afferent pathway for the pupillary light reflex.

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Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?

A.

Presence of retinal detachment

B.

Size of the tumor

C.

Cytology of the tumor cells

D.

Presence of extraocular extension

Correct Answer

A. Presence of retinal

 detachment

Explanation

Prognoistic factors in choroidal melanoma:Extent of metastatic diseaseAgeSize of intraocular tumourExtent of extrascleral tumour extensionCiliary body involvementHistopathological and cytogenetic features.

Which of the following is NOT a common refractive error of the eye?

A.

Myopia (nearsightedness)

B.

Hyperopia (farsightedness) 

C.

Astigmatism 

D.

Glaucoma

Correct Answer

D. Glaucoma

Explanation

Glaucoma is a serious eye condition that damages the optic nerve, often due to increased pressure within the eye. It is not a refractive error, which refers to how the eye bends light to focus images on the retina. The other options are common refractive errors: myopia (difficulty seeing distant objects), hyperopia (difficulty seeing near objects), and astigmatism (blurred vision due to an irregularly shaped cornea).

Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by:

A.

Vagus nerve

B.

Facial nerve

C.

Trigeminal nerve

D.

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Correct Answer

C. Trigeminal nerve

Explanation

The afferent component of the corneal reflex is mediated by the trigeminal nerve. This nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the cornea to the brain. When the cornea is stimulated, such as by a foreign object or a gust of air, sensory signals are sent through the trigeminal nerve to the brain, triggering a reflexive blinking response to protect the eye from potential harm. The other nerves listed, the vagus, facial, and glossopharyngeal nerves, are not involved in mediating the afferent component of the corneal reflex ⁉️ 

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The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the optic disc is:

A.

1 disc diameter

B.

2 disc diameter

C.

3 disc diameter

D.

4 disc diameter

Correct Answer

B. 2 disc diameter

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 disc diameter. The fovea is a small depression in the retina that is responsible for central vision. The optic disc is the point where the optic nerve exits the eye, and it is located on the nasal side of the retina. The average distance between the fovea and the temporal margin of the optic disc is 2 disc diameters. This means that the fovea is typically located about twice the distance of the diameter of the optic disc away from the temporal margin ⁉️ 

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The retina receives its blood supply from all, except:

A.

Posterior ciliary artery

B.

Central retinal artery

C.

Retinal arteries

D.

Plexus of Zinn and Haller arteries

Correct Answer

A. Posterior ciliary artery

Explanation

The retina receives its blood supply from the central retinal artery, retinal arteries, and the plexus of Zinn and Haller arteries. The posterior ciliary artery does not supply blood to the retina⁉️ 

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The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is:

A.

5 times

B.

10 times

C.

15 times

D.

20 times

Correct Answer

C. 15 times

Explanation

The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is 15 times. This means that when using a direct ophthalmoscope, the image seen through the instrument appears 15 times larger than it actually is. This level of magnification allows for a detailed examination of the retina and other structures within the eye⁉️ 

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